I’ve had a question bouncing around in my head for quite a few years. Nothing that really tripped me up too much—but one of those times when I couldn’t figure out how to get two verses to jive with one another.
First consider James 1:13-15. I grew up on the NIV so I’ll quote that translation first:
When tempted, no one should say, “God is tempting me.” For God cannot be tempted by evil, nor does he tempt anyone; but each one is tempted when, by his own evil desire, he is dragged away and enticed. Then, after desire has conceived, it gives birth to sin; and sin, when it is full-grown, gives birth to death.
Here is how I’ve always read that verse. Temptation doesn’t come from the Lord—it comes from our evil hearts. We’ve got jacked up desires. Temptation couldn’t take root unless there was an evil desire. Once that evil desire is prompted it will always give birth to sin—which will eventually lead to death. In sum, temptation comes from evil desires.
So what do I do with Matthew 4:1?
Then Jesus was led by the Spirit into the wilderness to be tempted by the devil.
If temptation comes from evil desires then what does this mean that Jesus was tempted by the devil? It’s the same word for temptation used in Matthew 4 and James 1. We cannot changed this and say that Jesus was tested in the wilderness but not tempted. To do so would do a great injustice to the argument in Hebrews 4:15. No Jesus was tempted much in the same way that we are tempted.
So does this mean that Jesus had an evil desire which drew him into temptation in the wilderness?
No. It doesn’t and here is why…
The NIV unfortunately supplies a word which isn’t in the original. The word “evil” does not actually appear in James 1:14. The word is epithymia. It simply means desire. It’s the same word used in Luke 22:15 when Jesus says that he has “earnestly desired” to eat Passover with his disciples. Certainly this isn’t an evil desire. It’s something he wants strongly—and this is not evil.
What then does James 1:13-15 mean? Consider how the ESV translates the text:
Let no one say when he is tempted, “I am being tempted by God,” for God cannot be tempted with evil, and he himself tempts no one. But each person is tempted when he is lured and enticed by his own desire. Then desire when it has conceived gives birth to sin, and sin when it is fully grown brings forth death. (James 1:13-15 ESV)
Our desires act to lure and entice us into sin. But those desires of themselves are not necessarily evil. So when Jesus was being tempted in the wilderness the enemy was using very real desires. Not evil in the themselves, but still intense desires of Jesus’ real humanity.
When Satan encouraged a hungry Jesus to turn stones into bread he was hijacking a perfectly reasonable desire. Jesus’ desire for food is not evil. But Satan took that desire and tried to lure Jesus away from pleasing the Father. But for Jesus his desire to be fed on the Word of God trumped his desire to be fed on Satan’s bread.
What does this mean for you and I? It means that Jesus understands the pull of sin. He truly was tempted in every way. In fact because he never caved he likely felt the full onslaught of temptation. But he did so without having evil desire…in fact he did so because he didn’t have evil desire.
—
Photo source: here
Jesus was tempted much like Adam and Eve before the Fall, They had no evil nature, but did have the power to respond as we all know too well. Good artcle.
It is a mystery how our Lord Jesus Christ is fully God, yet became fully man. The fact that he is fully God makes him incapable of sin or having any sinful desires. But he had to face and endure testing and temptation so He could be our perfect high priest who can completely empathize with our human condition. Thanks for a great article.